Doctrine Of Eternal Security

Does the Bible teach Doctrine Of Eternal Security?

(Exposing distorted teaching)

When we read 1 Corinthian chapter 5, it talks about an immoral man. What is his act of immorality? He is guilty of having his father’s wife (probably his step mother). Paul describes the act as a flagitious one; such, that it is not even reported among heathens. Those who preach "doctrine of eternal security" frequently use this passage to teach the validity of this doctrine; wherein we are taught: once you are saved, then you are always saved; no matter what.

They teach; one will never lose the salvation, even if they keep sinning and die in their sin without repenting. So, this implies, that after one believes in Jesus, he or she is incapable of getting lost eternally.

Let’s closely examine, as to what does the passage actually say.

As we read the portion of the scripture, a couple of question arise in our mind. Let us assume for a while on the basis of the "doctrine of eternal security;" that a man once saved, is always saved. The reason being; as the doctrine teaches; a person is saved by Grace and not by works. The doctrine teaches; Since one has the righteousness of Christ by faith, nothing can affect the righteousness of Christ; no, not even sin. The subscriber’s of this doctrine endorses, that if a man could commit such a sin, and is still saved on the day of Christ; Then there is nothing that can take a sinning brother to hell.

Well, while it is true that we have the righteousness of Christ; by faith; and we are indeed saved by His Grace; but can't possibly digest that how could we abuse the Grace? Esau abused his birth right, and later,  even tears of repentance could not bring back what was lost. This is a serious warning for us.

Lets have a closer look on the passage:

Firstly, Paul says, “… he who has done this deed might be taken away from among you.” (1Cor 5:2)

Taken away from among you; Why? If this man really has the righteousness of Christ, why should he be excommunicated (thrown out) from the Church? Because on the basis of the doctrine, his immoral deeds does not make him wrong with Christ; does it? Should then,  a man who is right with Christ be excommunicated? Instead, I suppose, if the Church leader were really troubling him, Paul should have advocated on his behalf and protected this brother. Why should Paul demand, that other believer’s should not even eat and drink with such a immoral brother? (Vs 11). And Paul further clarifies that he is not talking of unbelievers, but rather believers. (Vs 10)

Secondly, Paul says, “…deliver such a one to Satan.” (1Cor 5:5)

Why should a loving brother, saved by the Grace; having the righteousness of Christ, be delivered to Satan? Probably, this brother's immoral act proves, that he is already under the influence of Satan. But why did Paul still ask the Church to handover such a one to Satan? What does it actually mean? I believe, it simply implies that the Church ought to put him away from the congregation and leave him in in his sinful ways. (as in Rom 1:26). This was to be strictly followed, if he do not repent; he was to be left in his sinful life; as God does. (as in Mat 18:17). A little leaven, leavens the whole lump. Unholiness must be put away from from what is holy; they cannot commune together. The Church has been called with a holy calling. (2Tim 1:9)

Thirdly, Paul further says that the purpose of handing over to Satan is, “… for the destruction of the flesh” (1Cor 5:5). Here Paul clarifies the objective behind. What does this mean; And who will destroy the flesh; And how? Does this teach us that handing over a brother or a sister in the hands of Satan will finally save them even if they continue in Sin? Then we can suggest to have all the sinning unrepentant believers in the Church excommunicated, so that they will be saved in the day of Christ; And 99% of the problems will be solved. 

Fourthly, why does Paul say, “… his spirit shall be saved in the day of Christ,”(1Cor 5:5)
They say, ah! “…can you see that the scripture says such a man shall be finally saved?"

Read this carefully now: When we say “… his spirit shall be saved,” are we not also accepting the fact that his spirit at that moment is in some form of eternal danger? If the purpose of handing over to Satan is for the saving of his spirit, then logically we must also agree that His spirit is in some danger; eternal danger; because we read “… that his spirit may be saved in the day of Christ.”

Here comes the biggest question; while we are confidently affirming, that such a man is already saved by faith and cannot lose his salvation for his immoral conducts. Why should a saved man be saved the second time? Is this possible? Does it really make sense? Why should they try to save someone who is already saved? Can you save someone who is already saved? Probably not! How can someone whom God has already saved, be saved by mere human efforts again? So, therefore, we need to conclude saying, Paul was talking about saving somebody, who was indeed capable of losing something; his own soul.

If there is no fear of losing anything; then by logic too, there arises no question of saving either. Question of saving comes only then; when there is a fear of losing or getting lost. (emphasis added). 

If this man has nothing to lose, why even bother him sir?

We need to understand that immorality of this man was leading him to a dimension wherein he was not safe; Hence, believer's were commanded to handover such a one to his own debased life style, that he may finally realize and repent; After becoming obsessed with the pleasures of flesh.

Why did Paul forbid the Corinthians to have fellowship with such believers, who are extortionist, sexual immoral, covetous or idolaters? Why should we not dine and fellowship together with such people; if they are indeed righteous by faith? Paul then is guilty of instigating and falsely stirring up the believers against each other; but this is not so.

Lastly, Paul calls this immoral brother "evil person" (1Cor 5:13) How come a man, who is right with Christ; having righteousness of Christ be a "evil person"? Surely, he can’t be evil, for what evil (from Satan) has to do with Christ?

Well, somewhere we are definitely going wrong; We are unable to divide the word of God rightly; (2Tim 2:15) And this is causing a lot of discomfort to the body of Christ. Lets desire to be men and women who rightly divides the Word of truth. "Study to show yourself approved unto God, a workman who does not need to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth." "... the anointing that abides in you shall teach you." (2 Tim 2:5, 1 John 1:27)